Can’t offer better advice than “read it all”.
If I were to say to you, “A well-educated population, being necessary to the productivity of a free state, the right of the people to read and write, shall not be infringed,” would you take that to mean that people can only read and write if doing so is in service of the state? Or only because the State desires a well-educated population?
Would you conclude from this statement that the right of the people to read and write is a collective right, not an individual right?
Would you accept restrictions on your ability to read and write because doing so does not serve the State?
Would you insist that only government employees be allowed to read and write?
Source: Oleg Volk